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Friday, September 20, 2019

I've always accepted this whitewashing of discrepancies in Jesus' genealogies?

answers1: You can find various spectacular displays of semantic and
logical gymnastics which attempt explain this, e.g. <a
href="http://www.carm.org/bible-difficulties/matthew-mark/why-are-there-different-genealogies-jesus-matthew-1-and-luke-3"
rel="nofollow"class=Clr-b>http://www.carm.org/bible-difficulties/m...</a>
or <a href="http://www.bringyou.to/apologetics/bible.htm#65,"
rel="nofollow"class=Clr-b>http://www.bringyou.to/apologetics/bible...</a>
but it still seems odd that Joseph's ancestors reproduced 40% faster
than Mary's.
answers2: "[T]he Jews had no word to express th[e] concept [of
son-in-law] and so just used 'son'—e.g., 1 Samuel 24:16; 26:17...."
answers3: Coz the translators are really sleepy when they did that.
Besides, I'm sure that they have a family to go home to. I'd rather go
home and meet my wife than fussing over every single detail in a book
that people barely read anyway.

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